StepGenie
Question 1 of 3
A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of intermittent vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as clear and stretchy, similar to egg white, occurring every few weeks without a noticeable odor. Her menstrual cycles are regular every 28 days, associated with mild cramping and 1 day of increased fatigue; her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Medical history is notable for a recent urinary tract infection treated with ciprofloxacin. She became sexually active with a new partner 6 months ago and does not use barrier contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination reveals a clear, thin discharge in the vaginal vault without vulvar erythema or irritation and no cervical motion or adnexal tenderness. A wet mount of a vaginal swab is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology of this patient’s condition?
Clinical finding

Answer to reveal the full explanation

You'll get the step-by-step reasoning, why every other option is wrong, and the NBME trap behind this question — no account needed.